"...contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all delivered to the saints."- Jude 1:3

Sunday, January 18, 2015

Undermining Richard Carrier's version of the Christ Myth Hypothesis

(last updated 2/12/16)


With minor editing, I posted the following in a YouTube video where Richard Carrier discussed reasons for why he thinks it's possible there was no historical Jesus. Additional material not included in the YouTube comments are in RED. [My comments might eventually be deleted because the YouTube channel is named  UNCG Atheists]

Minimally, Carrier's version of the Christ Myth hypothesis requires that there be no evidence for a historical/physical Jesus in the undisputed Pauline epistles. Here are some evidences/reasons from the core Pauline corpus to suggest Jesus' historicity which Carrier missed. Like Carrier, I'm excluding the contested Deutero-Pauline epistles in this survey. If I did include them in the survey, there would be EVEN MORE evidence for a historical Jesus [and the physicality of Christ's resurrection].
- Rom. 9:5 states that Jesus was physically from the Jewish (i.e. Israelite) race.
"To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen."- Rom. 9:5. If this is a proper translation, then this verse is affirming Christ's dual nature and contrasting Jesus' human nature with His divine nature. See THIS LINK for the evidence of this being properly translated. Notice too that Paul refers to his fellow Jews as his kinsmen "according to the flesh" two verses earlier in verse 3. It is unlikely that Paul's use of the phrase "according to the flesh" has a different sense or meaning in verse 5 than in verse 3. Therefore, Paul is intimating that Jesus was a real historical human being.
- Rom. 1:3 Christ was made/born of the seed of David ACCORDING TO THE FLESH

- 1 Thess. 2:14-15 states that the Jews/Judeans killed Jesus like they did the other prophets. Possibly Carrier missed 1 Thess. 2:14-15 because he mixes it up with 1 Tim. 6:13. First Thessalonians is one of the (if not THE) earliest uncontested Pauline book unlike 1 Timothy which is contested/disputed by liberal scholars. Some claim this is an interpolation. I may be wrong, but I'm not aware of any manuscripts that omit it or have major textual variants comparable to the interpolation in Josephus regarding Christ. Some have said, "the final sentence contains a virtually unmistakable reference to the destruction of Jerusalem, which occurred after Paul's death" and therefore must be an interpolation. But this is merely a manifestation of an anti-supernaturalistic bias. It reasons (even if only tacitly) that since the supernatural doesn't exist, the seeming prophetic statement must not be an authentic statement by Paul.


- Rom. 8:3 states that God sent his own Son in the likeness of sinful FLESH and for sin, and that God condemned sin IN THE FLESH. This likely refers to Jesus physical and bodily death. Therefore implying the physicality and historicity of Jesus.

- Gal. 1:19 mentions the apostle James as "the Lord's brother" in distinction from the "other apostles." Carrier did cite 1 Cor. 9:5 which mentions the brothers of the Lord, but his response doesn't address Gal. 1:19. Hence Paul likely believed in a historical/physical Jesus. And that's excluding the siblings mentioned in the Gospels and Acts (e.g. Mark 6:3, Matthew 13:55, John 7:3, Acts 1:14).

- 1 Cor. 15:4 states Jesus was buried. The most plausible interpretation is that this refers to a literal physical burial. Hence, an indication that Jesus was a historical and physical person.

- In Galatians when Paul states his gospel was received as a revelation from Christ Paul is CONTRASTING that with how the other apostles received their gospel message (i.e. it was directly by the physical historical Jesus). Later Paul says he compared his gospel with theirs to make sure they were in harmony, and they were (Gal. 2:1-2; 2:7-10). Because of the contrast in the way the rest of the apostles received their Gospel when compared with Paul, the implication is that Jesus was a historical human being.

- Gal. 4:4 states Jesus was born/made UNDER THE LAW. Clearly intimating Jesus' physical and historical reality (cf. 1 Cor. 9:19-20 which uses the same phrase). The whole point of saying Jesus was born/made of a woman is to indicate Jesus' historicity (cf. 1 Cor. 11:12). How else is one made/born of a woman than physically and historically? Notice, how Gal. 4:4 talks about "the fullness of time" which further corroborates historicity and physicality. Being under the law (of Moses) was understood to be something literal human Jews were under.

The repeated reference to the "cross" of Christ suggests a physical cross and hence a historical/physical Jesus. 1 Cor. 1:17-18; Gal. 5:11; 6:12, 14; Phil. 2:8; 3:18.

 - When Paul rhetorically asks whether he was crucified for the Corinthians rather than Jesus (1 Cor. 1:13) he's talking about a physical crucifixion. Hence, Jesus' crucifixion was physical.

- When Paul says (1 Cor. 1:23) that a crucified Messiah is a stumbling block to the Jews its because a physically suffering, dying and apparently defeated Messiah is the exact opposite of what the Jews expected. Besides, most Jews believed in a human messiah. [I take this back. I'm not sure what percentage of Jews at that time believed in a human, or divine, or spiritual or a dual natured messiah during the 1st century. However, many did believe in a human messiah].

- 1 Cor. 15:20 states that Jesus' resurrection is the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. Falling asleep refers to physical death including the death of believers (verse 18). Therefore, Jesus' resurrection was a literal physical resurrection. Which presupposes a literal physical death as well. And a physical death presupposes a bodily historical Jesus who lived as a human being.

- 1 Cor. 2:8 shouldn't automatically be dismissed as heavenly/spiritual rulers rather than human rulers. Especially in light of
1 Thess. 2:14-15. It's possible it refers to both human and angelic rulers. If it does include human rulers, then that presupposes a physical and historical Jesus.

- If the resurrection of Christians is physical, and if Christ's return sets off the resurrection, then the return of Christ is physical. If Christ's return is physical, then his leaving would have been physical as well. That's especially true since the resurrection of the saints is supposed to be similar to Christ's resurrection (cf. Rom. 8:11, 23; Phil. 3:20-21).

- When Paul states (1 Cor. 5:7) that Christ was sacrificed as our Passover, that makes most sense if Jesus was physically slain like the Passover lambs.

- The communion elements of bread and wine as symbolic of Christ's body and blood (1 Cor. 11:27; 10:16) suggests physicality/historicity.

- Phil. 2:7-8 states that Jesus was "born/made in the likeness of men" and found "in human form" and died on a cross. A physical cross makes most sense in context.

- In Phil. 3:10-11 Paul states he wants to SHARE in Christ's sufferings, becoming like Christ in His death in order that he (Paul) might attain the resurrection from the dead. This makes most sense if Paul believed in Jesus' physicality/historicity since Paul's sufferings and persecutions were physical and earthly.

- The centrality and importance of the city of Jerusalem to the early Christians and the Christian community is best consistent with a historical/physical Jesus (cf. Rom. 15:19, 25-26, 31; 1 Cor. 16:3; Gal. 1:17-18; 2:1). Especially since Jesus' physical half-brother James was the main apostle in Jerusalem.

These are just SOME of the evidences and reasons.

2nd comment

In the video Carrier includes Hebrews as an early Christian text. But not as a Pauline epistle (as most scholars, whether conservative or liberal, reject Paul's authorship). 

I commend Carrier for including Hebrews. But he misses the important phrase in Heb. 5:7 which talks about "in THE DAYS OF HIS [i.e. Jesus'] FLESH." Meaning his earthly life before the resurrection and ascension to heaven (without implying Christ no longer has a physical body). There's a contrast being made between Christ's current mediatorial activity in heaven and his previous activity IN THE FLESH on earth.

As well as Heb. 2:14 which specifically states Jesus partook/shared in "flesh and blood" like believers. The whole point of this passage is that Jesus didn't take the nature of angels but of humans (see verses 16-17 just two verses later). Notice earlier that verse 9 states Jesus was, for a while, made lower than the angels. Suggesting a historical and physical incarnation.

As well as Heb. 10:19-20 which mentions Jesus' blood and identifies the curtain of the heavenly temple as Jesus' flesh. The idea being that the sacrifice of Jesus' physical body is the gateway or curtain by which we on earth can enter the spiritual temple and God's presence.


Heb. 2:3-4 states, "...It [i.e. the gospel] was declared at first by the Lord, and it was attested to us by those who heard,4 while God also bore witness by signs and wonders and various miracles and by gifts of the Holy Spirit distributed according to his will." This verses suggests that Jesus first preached the gospel on earth physically in the same way human ministers and apostles later did.

"For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, and in connection with that tribe Moses said nothing about priests."- Heb. 7:14. This verses suggests Jesus was a literal physical descendant of the tribe of Judah.

I don't know how Carrier could miss such passages.
3rd comment

Carrier also missed 2 Cor. 5:16 which states, "From now on, therefore, we regard no one according to the flesh. Even though we once regarded Christ according to the flesh, we regard him thus no longer." This verse contrasts regarding Christ according to the flesh and no longer doing so. It suggests and seems to presuppose a historical and physical Jesus.

Here's a link to an article by a Mythcist which lists 20 arguable references to the Gospel Jesus in the New Testament epistles. Some of the passages should be included in this blog. I'll add them if I find the time. Nevertheless, it's interesting how the writer has to do a lot of work to explain away the natural senses of many of the verses. Sometimes such verses are the only way the New Testament author could refer to Jesus as being a historical human being. That's why many mythicist arguments are unfalsifiable, ad hoc, and implausible.










Update: 2021-04-14
I got into a discussion on the topic. Here's a copy of my comments. I repeated some of the stuff from above below:

Mythicism is so implausible because it has to resort to using SO MANY ad hoc arguments to explain away all of the evidence for a historical Jesus found in all the epistles of Paul, the other epistles and the Gospels. 

It has to argue for Jesus being historicized in the Gospels which were written later than Paul contrary to what one would expect given the fact that Christianity began with Jews and spread to the Gentiles. Given atheistic assumptions, one would think that the opposite would happen. That the idea of Jesus started out as a mere human among Jews then when it spread to the pagan Gentiles he was divinized via apotheosis. In fact, that's kind of what we actually see in the 2nd century Gnostics where Jesus' divinity is so emphasized that his humanity is denied. That's why near the close of the 1st century the author of the Johannine epistles had to reaffirm the humanity of Jesus against the proto-Gnostics [i.e. he identifies the spirit/teaching of the anti-Christ as denying Jesus has come in the flesh]. 

Mythicism doesn't explain well why the Ebionite Jews would think Jesus was only a mere human messiah. Or why the hostile testimony of the Jewish Talmud alludes to Jesus and maligns him, yet never doubts his historical existence.

Mythicism doesn't fit well with the more [not sole] universal and foundational 2nd Temple Jewish understanding and expectation that the Messiah would be human. This is why of the 30+ proposed Messianic candidates among Jews, all of them [or virtually so] have been historical figures. See the Wiki article

Mythicism doesn't fit well with the more [not sole] universal and foundational understanding that resurrection/anastasis usually means a literally bodily resurrection of a dead corpse which presupposes an actual historical existence. 

Mythcism doesn't fit will with Paul's identification of his own persecution and that of fellow Christians [often by his fellow non-Messianic Jews] as analogous to, and continuation of the persecution of the Messiah through his followers [often by the same Jewish groups]. See Phil. 3:10-11; Rom. 8:17; 2 Cor. 4:10-12; Rom. 15:3; [cf. 2 Cor. 13:4; Heb. 12:3-4; Heb. 13:13-14; Deutero-Pauline Col. 1:24] This persecution of believers was physical, psychological and earthly. In which case, Christ's must have been to since they are likened to one another.

Mythicism doesn't fit well with the idea that Jesus the Messiah was crucified on a cross. Which under normal circumstances presupposes a Roman and earthly execution. cf. 1 Cor. 1:17-18; Gal. 5:11; 6:12, 14; Phil. 2:8; 3:18.

Mythicism doesn't fit well with the early Christian practice of communion [1 Cor. 11:23-26] where physical bread represents the physical body of Jesus, and physical wine represent the physical blood of Jesus. With Jesus as the NT counterpart to the OT Passover [1 Cor. 5:7] which was believed to be a historical event during the Exodus that used real physical animals originally, and since the tabernacle/Temple. Paul even alludes to Jesus' betrayal which lines up with the Gospels' portrayal of Judas.

Mythicism doesn't fit well with Paul's teaching that our death and resurrection is analogous to Christ's. Implying a historical Jesus. See Phil. 3:21; 2 Cor. 4:14; Rom. 8:11; Rom. 8:17; Rom. 14:7-9; 1 Th. 4:14-17; 1 Cor. 6:14; 1 Cor. 15:16-20. Often the contexts teaches or implies a bodily resurrection for believers. Which implies Jesus' death and resurrection were bodily too.

Mythicism doesn't give a clear and definite explanation of Jesus' brother[s] Gal. 1:19, 1 Cor. 9:5. It provides ad hoc and implausible explanations.

Mythicism doesn't fit well with Paul's understanding of "under the law" in Gal. 4:4 when compared with 1 Cor. 9:20 which suggests a usual literal historical living under the requirements of the Mosaic code.

Mythicism doesn't fit well with Gal. 4:4 that says Jesus was born/made/come (of/to) a woman. The phrase "in the fullness of time" in connection with birth suggests an entrance into the temporal and earthly.

It doesn't fit well with Gal. 3:13 which alludes to Deut. 21:23 [cf. Num. 25:4; Jos. 8:29; Jos 10:26-27; 2 Sa 18:10-15; 2 Sa 17:23; 2 Sam. 21:6-10]. These were historical executions by hanging of some sort.

It doesn't fit well with Rom. 15:8 which says Christ became a servant/minister to the circumcised/circumcision [i.e. the Jews]. A likely allusion to Jesus' literal earthly ministry to His fellow Jews which Paul implies is continued in his & others' ministry. Compare 2 Cor. 5:16 which might be an allusion to Jesus earthly life and how prior to believing in Him Christians saw Him in a ordinary insignificant light.

It doesn't fit well with Phil. 2:6-11 which contrasts Jesus preexistent state as being in the "form of God" with His incarnation "taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. Being found in appearance as a man" [NASB]. Similar to how Rom. 9:5 contrasts Jesus humans and divine nature.

It doesn't fit well with Paul's rhetorical question in 1 Cor. 1:13 whether he was crucified for them instead of Christ. Implying Christ's crucifixion was earthly not celestial. In 1 Cor. 1:23 he calls Christ's cross a stumbling block to Jews because it contradicted the popular belief of a conquering Messiah, not an apparently defeated one on a earthly Roman execution stake/cross.

It doesn't fit well with the centrality and importance of the city of Jerusalem to the early Christians and the Christian community is best consistent with a historical/physical Jesus (cf. Rom. 15:19, 25-26, 31; 1 Cor. 16:3; Gal. 1:17-18; 2:1). Especially if Jesus' physical half-brother James was the main apostle in Jerusalem as Acts claims.

It doesn't fit well with 1 Cor. 15:20 which describes Jesus' resurrection as the FIRSTfruits. Implying a similarity between believers resurrection which will be bodily with Christ's which was bodily. In. 1 Cor. 15:38 & 43, Paul likens death and resurrection to a seed that's sown that and springs up. Implying a literal physical burial and bodily resurrection.

Carrier sometimes accepts Hebrews as early in order to boast his theory. But the book actually undermines his case.
Heb. 2:9 best fits with a literal historical sufferings and death of Jesus. He's said to be made lower than the angels. An allusion to Ps. 8:4-5ff. [cf. Job. 7:17ff.; Ps. 144:3] which is about literal human beings. Just as a few verses later Heb. 2:14 refers to how Jesus partook of flesh and blood like "the children" [i.e. Christians]. Two verses later 2:16-17 it says God didn't help the angels but to the seed/descendants of Abraham [i.e. human believers]. That Jesus might be like His brothers in everything [v. 17]. Implying Jesus took on the nature of humans and not of angels.

Mythicism doesn't fit well with Jesus being likened to the work, actions and consequences of Moses, Adam & Abel's spilled blood whom Paul thought were historical figures [Heb. 3:1-6; Rom. 5; 1 Cor. 15:21; Heb. 12:24]. In Heb. 5:7 the author talks about the "days of His flesh" [i.e. Jesus'] and how "He offered up both prayers and supplications with loud crying and tears to the One able to save Him from death". This makes most sense if this was a literal earthly life. Compare Paul's teaching about Jesus being made in the likeness of sinful flesh [Rom. 8:3]. In Heb. 7:14 the author talks about how Jesus was descended from the tribe of Judah. Only ad hoc arguments can explain away the clear meaning of that statement. Hebrews 9:27-28 makes reference to human mortality and corresponds that with Jesus' sacrificial death. Implying an earthly historical death. Hebrews 10:5 quotes the LXX and applies it to Jesus saying a body was prepared for Jesus. Implying a historical incarnation. Like in Paul, Heb. 12:3-4 [cf. 13:12-13] likens Jesus' persecution with Christians' earthly persecution.

It doesn't fit well with Heb. 2:3-4 with refers to the Gospel being declared at first by the Lord, and then by them. Implying their earthly proclamation of the Gospel was a continuation of Jesus' earthy proclamation.


Sunday, October 5, 2014

Scientists Discover that Atheists Might Not Exist


In one of his blogs CalvinDude wrote:


Scientists discover that atheists might not exist, and that’s not a joke.
[ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ link to article   ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑]

The article tries to claim that there are evolutionary survivability advantages to believing in God despite Him supposedly not existing. But frankly the article posits nothing of value on that discussion. Better arguments have been put forth elsewhere.

Of course, all such arguments fall prey to one important fact. If evolution selects for us to believe in some form of deity when objectively there is no God at all, then evolution is selecting for us to believe a lie; and since on the theory that God isn’t real then all our knowledge comes from similar evolutionary pressures, then ultimately we must acknowledge that evolution cannot select for truth at all. This means we can’t exactly trust anything that is based on evolutionary pressures.
But I’m sure atheists will get right on patching up that flaw. Any time now. Any time.

The link CalvinDude provides is to an article that argues that the scientific evidence strongly supports the idea that humans are neurologically hard-wired to believe in metaphysically supernatural personal entities (like God, gods, ghosts, spirits etc.). Atheists often appeal to evolutionary reliabilism to overcome the theistic challenge of EAAN (i.e. the Evolutionary Argument Against Naturalism). However, if humans really are hard-wired to believe in supernatural entities and can't completely escape or overcome that bias, then that undermines the appeal to evolutionary reliabilism.

With the assumption that atheism is true, the fact that "most" people ("all" according to the article above?) are believers in the supernatural goes to show that evolution has done a terrible job of designing our sensory organs and mental faculties to be able to arrive at truth. This supports Plantinga's EAAN (Evolutionary Argument Against Naturalism) which argues that it's rationally incoherent to be a evolutionary atheist because unguided evolution makes it unlikely that any of our thoughts and conclusions are trustworthy or true. Including the conclusion of atheism.

On the one hand many atheists claim that our cognitive faculties are reliable enough to enable us to conclude that God doesn't exist (or probably so). Yet, the empirical evidence from experiments is that humans are naturally and incurably wedded to the belief in supernatural entities like God. On the other hand, many atheists claim that our cognitive faculties are very deceptive and that accounts for why the majority of humans believe in supernatural entities and only a few can overcome that natural programming so as to come to the more sensible conclusion that there probably isn't a God. Yet, if taken to its logical conclusion, that gives atheists reason to doubt their conclusions, including the conclusion that there is no God or is likely no God. Why assume they can overcome such evolutionary programming if evolution did such a bad job at forming our cognitive faculties? Thus making positive strong atheism epistemologically difficult (if not impossible) to assert.

The following are three links to an article about the scientific experiment that showed that atheists sweat when they dare God to do harm:

http://fixedpointfix.com/daring-god-makes-atheists-sweat/

http://epiphenom.fieldofscience.com/2013/11/atheists-get-sweaty-when-daring-god.html

http://www.secularnewsdaily.com/2013/11/atheists-get-sweaty-when-daring-god/

Belief in God is part of human nature - Oxford study
http://www.telegraph.co.uk/news/politics/8510711/Belief-in-God-is-part-of-human-nature-Oxford-study.html


Related links:

Are humans innately inclined to find theism intuitive?

I’m an atheist. So why can’t I shake God?

10 facts about atheists

Why God Won't Go Away: Brain Science & the Biology of Belief

Do children believe because they're told to by adults? The evidence suggests otherwise

Anger at God common, even among atheists


Is Atheism a Delusion?



Is Atheism a Delusion? (Follow up)
(https://youtu.be/xnBTJDje5xk)



https://youtu.be/byN38dyZb-k
Can Atheists Trust Their Own Minds?
by William Lane Craig



The Circularity of Evolutionary Reliabilism

Two Senses of ‘Reliability’ in Evolutionary Epistemology

The Case Against Reality by Greg Welty

Evolution May Obscure Reality, Says a Cognitive Scientist and Evolutionist by Sarah Chaffee

 Born Believers: The Science of Children's Religious Belief by Justin L. Barrett [Amazon.com link]

The Hard Problem of Consciousness http://www.iep.utm.edu/hard-con/

Problems of Consciousness http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/consciousness/#ProCon

Eliminative Materialism  http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/materialism-eliminative/


Is Consciousness an Illusion? by Thomas Nagel   
http://www.nybooks.com/articles/2017/03/09/is-consciousness-an-illusion-dennett-evolution/


Greg Bahnsen's doctoral dissertation is available for download. The title is, A Conditional Resolution of the Apparent Paradox of Self-Deception

It was presented to the faculty of the University of Southern California

Here's the link:    http://digitallibrary.usc.edu/cdm/ref/collection/p15799coll3/id/388025

Greg Bahnsen was a Calvinist philosopher and apologist who argued for the standard Calvinistic position that all men know God but suppress that knowledge in their unrighteousness. I'm no longer dogmatic that [setting aside the mentally handicapped and infants] all men do know God. Maybe we all do. But at the very least, I'm convinced that all people *OUGHT* to know God exists and that those who don't (if they really exist) are culpably ignorant.


See Also My Blogs:

Evidence and Arguments Against Materialism and Naturalism


The Psychology of Atheism



Monday, September 29, 2014

The Life of the Messiah (21 audio lectures) by Arnold Fruchtenbaum



This blogpost links to Arnold G. Fruchtenbaum's 21 part audio lecture series "The Life of the Messiah" (alternatively titled "The Jewish Life of Christ").


Lecture 1 Lecture 2 Lecture 3 Lecture 4 Lecture 5 Lecture 6 Lecture 7
Lecture 8 Lecture 9 Lecture 10 Lecture 11 Lecture 12 Lecture 13 Lecture 14
Lecture 15 Lecture 16 Lecture 17 Lecture 18 Lecture 19 Lecture 20 Lecture 21




Answering Your Toughest Questions with Dr. Michael Brown YouTube Episodes:
 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16,
 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25,26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32,

Each episode is about 30 minutes long. That means this series of lectures is about 16 hours long. It deals with the toughest questions regarding the Messiahship of Jesus/Yeshua.





Countering the Counter-Missionaries
(Over 24 hours of teaching by Michael L. Brown)

Day 1 part 1 & 2 http://youtu.be/vV9rMFOFkgY
Day 1 part 3 & 4 http://youtu.be/OLT7BYpdU1o

Day 2 part 1 & 2 http://youtu.be/tcsK1VfAA0Y
Day 2 part 3 & 4 http://youtu.be/wbKAFnr0O6Q

Day 3 part 1 & 2 http://youtu.be/roHll6Gf3EY
Day 3 part 3 & 4 http://youtu.be/nt3X4SbijEo

Day 4 part 1 & 2 http://youtu.be/JLg4XnkitKE
Day 4 part 3 & 4 http://youtu.be/O_LyQI9dpI4

Day 5 part 1 & 2 http://youtu.be/Q-nMtATgETE
Day 5 part 3 & 4 http://youtu.be/7KUc9kQlb1Y





It's common for non-Messianic Jews to argue that no respected and learned rabbis ever accepted Jesus' Messiahship. However that's false. As the following two articles proves.

Rabbis Who Thought For Themselves Part ONE
Rabbis Who Thought For Themselves Part TWO

The above articles don't even mention learned Jews who weren't rabbis but who nevertheless were believers in Jesus/Yeshua. For example, Charles Lee Feinberg who was on his way to becoming a rabbi when he became convinced that Jesus was the Messiah. He went on to become a biblical scholar and professor of Semitics and Old Testament. He was an authority on the Jewish history, languages and customs of the Old Testament and biblical prophecies. His two sons John and Paul also became Christian scholars. Another example would be Alfred Edersheim who wrote classic books including The Life and Times of Jesus the Messiah. David H. Stern (writer of the Jewish New Testament Commentary). Another example would be Louis Goldberg, Th.D. - faculty; author and former professor of Theology and Jewish Studies; former president of the Evangelical Theological Society, in 1983; former Scholar-in-Residence for Jews for Jesus.

More could be cited, but I'll leave it at that.


See also my related blog:

What Do You Think About The Messiah?

Sunday, September 14, 2014

Problems with the Multiverse


I myself am open to the reality of a multiverse. I don't believe its existence threatens the existence of God. I agree with Robin Collins views as he's explained it in the 2nd video HERE.

As Robin Collins points out th multiverse would be consistent with the infinite creativity of God (or Divine principle of plenitude). Nevertheless, the idea that a multiverse exists apart from a designer does seem unlikely and ad hoc to me. It goes against the principle of parsimony or Occam's Razor which argues that all things being equal, the simpler explanation or hypothesis is to be preferred over more complex ones.  As Richard Swinburne wrote:

"…it is the height of irrationality to postulate an infinite number of universes never causally connected with each other,  merely to avoid the hypothesis of theism. Given that simplicity makes for prior probability, and a theory is simpler the  fewer entities it postulates, it is far simpler to postulate one God than an infinite number of universes, each differing  from each other in accord with a regular formula, uncaused by anything else."
- Richard Swinburne on the multiverse  theory in his book The Existence of God

"Some have said that the laws of nature are simply accidental results of the way the universe cooled after the big bang. But, as Rees has pointed out, even such accidents can be regarded as secondary manifestations of deeper laws governing the ensemble of universes. Again, even the evolution of the laws of nature and changes to the constants follow certain laws. 'We’re still left with the question of how these "deeper" laws originated. No matter how far you push back the properties of the universe as somehow "emergent," their very emergence has to follow certain prior laws.'1 So multiverse or not, we still have to come to terms with the origin of the laws of nature. And the only viable explanation here is the divine Mind.” —Antony Flew (There is a God, pp. 121-122.) [Anthony Flew was a well known 20th century atheist philosopher who converted to theism near the end of his life.]
1. Martin Rees, “Exploring Our Universe and Others,” in The Frontiers of Space (New York: Scientific American, 2000), 87. 

“[The multiverse theory] can explain anything . . . If a theory allows anything to be possible, it explains nothing; a theory of anything is not the same as a theory of everything.”- John Polkinghorne (is an Anglican priest and philosopher, a theist. He was also at one time a theoretical particle physicist at Cambridge.)
Polkinghorne's statement renders the multiverse theory trivial—or at least the infinite universes version of the theory.

Victor Stenger, a retired physics prof from the University of Hawaii, has given us two books that explain both atheism and "multiverses", and behold, they are one. Few other proponents of multiverses are quite as forthcoming with their logic, but clearly something besides data must motivate the science of multiverses, because by definition multiverses are not observable. Stenger makes the connection explicit, whereas Hawking or Susskind is a little more coy with their metaphysics. Multiverse-theory is designed for one purpose, and one purpose only, and that is to defend atheism. It makes no predictions, it gives no insight, it provides no control, it produces no technology, it advances no mathematics, it is a science in name only, because it is really metaphysics.- physicist Rob Sheldon
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/bloggers/2746500/posts

William Lane Craig has made an interesting point when comparing the competing hypotheses of cosmic design and a multiverse. There's independent evidence for the existence of God, but there is no independent evidence for the multiverse/world ensemble. Much less that it's also infinitely numbered and randomly ordered.
John Lennox rightly noted that though atheists may present the options of either God OR the multiverse, that's a false dilemma since God could have created the multiverse. Don Page is a Canadian Christian and theoretical physicist who is a colleague of Stephen Hawking and he believes in the multiverse. Craig has pointed out that theism is the best hope for the existence of the multiverse because an omnipotent God can create as many worlds as He wants.


Physicist Paul Davies’ killer argument against the multiverse
http://www.uncommondescent.com/intelligent-design/physicist-paul-davies-killer-argument-against-the-multiverse/


Stephen C. Meyer giving his reasons for why cosmic intelligent design is more plausible even if a multiverse theory is true. He speaks on the topic for about 10 minutes. I've already qued the video at 70 minutes. View video by Clicking HERE




Here's another critique of the Multiverse theory.

The Teleological Argument (What it really says)
(video link)


The Big Bang, Multiverses, and the Anthropic Principle Discussed by William Lane Craig 






"If, for some unforeseen reason, the landscape turns out to be inconsistent – maybe for mathematical reasons, or because it disagrees with observation – I am pretty sure that physicists will go on searching for natural explanations of the world. But I have to say that if that happens, as things stand now we will be in a very awkward position. Without any explanation of nature’s fine-tunings we will be hard pressed to answer the ID critics. One might argue that the hope that a mathematically unique solution will emerge is as faith-based as ID." - From the New Scientist interview of Leonard Susskind
To the hard-line physicist, the multiverse may not be entirely respectable, but it is at least preferable to invoking a Creator. Indeed, anthropically inclined physicists like Susskind and Weinberg are attracted to the multiverse precisely because it seems to dispense with God as the explanation of cosmic design.- Bernard Carr

[Bernard J. Carr is a British professor of mathematics and astronomy at Queen Mary University of London] 

 


William Lane Craig's Debate with Sean Carroll

This link includes 1. Craig's pre-debate assessment, 2. the debate, 3. Craig's after debate reflections





As I understand it, the Multiverse theory is a cosmological postulate distinct (and different from) from the Many Worlds interpretation of Quantum Mechanics.

Here's a critique of the many worlds interpretation


A Critique of the Many Worlds Interpretation
(video link)





Why Obey God? [rough draft]

I'm currently working on this blog. Comments and Objections welcome. Sometimes objections are the best way to help refine one's arguments.
 
See also my blog: God in Relation to Law: Ex Lex, Sub Lego or Sibi Ipsi Lex

In this blog I'll try to map out the reasons for obeying God. It'll be in the form of a dialogue. I'll be giving answers, objections and commentary as I play both Christian theist and atheist.

A = Christian Answer; 
O = Atheist Objection; 
C = My Commentary


Why should one obey God?


A. Because God is the ultimate authority and commands you to.

O. But that begs the question [i.e. circular reasoning], since we're asking why  one should obey God. Saying one should obey God because God is the ultimate authority doesn't actually answer the question. It merely bypasses or dismisses or ignores the question. Why should one accept God's claimed authority in the first place? What reasons can you give me to believe that God does have such an authority and is deserving my obedience?

A. But to ask why one should obey God is itself to beg the question [circular reasoning] as to whether God actually does possess ultimate authority such that you must obey God.

C. I agree and disagree with both responses. I do believe that to question God's authority is to beg the question as to whether God does have such an authority. As a Christian I do believe God has that kind of authority and is deserving such implicit obedience. However, questioning God's authority is not the same thing as asking for reasons why one ought to obey God. There's nothing inherently wrong in asking for such reasons.

A. You ought to obey God because God is the source of our being and well being. By believing in God you avoid hell and will potentially enter heaven. God is omnipotent and can enforce His punishment on the disobedient and distribute His blessings on the obedient. God is not only our Creator, but also our Sustainer. By God's providence He conserves and preserves our continued existence. We are alive because God continues to uphold our being and existence along with providing whatever good things we do happen to enjoy in this world.

O. But those are prudential reasons, not rational reasons. With that approach one is merely obeying God for mercenary reasons. In essence, you're telling us to become cosmic sycophants, brown nosers and ass kissers. Also, your reference to God being powerful enough to enforce his punishment on the disobedient borders on, or commits the argumentum ad baculum fallacy. You and God are threatening me with the consequence of eternal punishment if I don't accept God's (claimed) authority.

C. Biblically, prudential reasons (like those mentioned above) are good and permissible reasons to obey God, but they are NOT the only reasons or even the BEST reasons. Also, I'm not so sure I'm committing the ad baculum fallacy. I might be, but not all ad baculum arguments are fallacious (see Here).


What is really being asked is what are the rational reasons one should obey God.


A. A rational reason to obey God is because He is your Creator. Your ontological Father, so to speak. In the same way you ought to implicitly obey your parents who gave you being, so you ought to obey God your Heavenly Father and Creator. You owe Him your being. Also, as your Creator, His commands to you and your duties to Him are adapted to your nature. So, they aren't arbitrary. As one person put it, "God doesn’t arbitrarily decree social ethics irrespective of the nature of social creatures. He has endowed us with a certain nature. The code of conduct is adapted to the way in which he designed us."

O. But earthly parents or creators don't have intrinsic authority. Just because someone is your parent or your creator doesn't entail you must obey them implicitly. A parent has no right to command you to to do evil. They have no right to murder you, or command you to commit murder. Consider this thought experiment. If Dr. Frankenstein or Satan created you, are you obligated to do their bidding merely because they command or wish it? Obviously not. Also, humans eventually become as knowledgeable as their parents (if not surpass them in knowledge). Good parents don't expect you to obey them implicitly all your life. If they did their job of parenting right, they expect you to reach a stage of development that you objectively consider their statements and advice and make rational decisions. You expect us to eternally be dependent on God's wisdom. To virtually remain children all our lives.

A. But God is all wise, all good, all powerful etc. That is to say, we should obey God because God is the kind of being God is. God is the maximally great being who is the summum bonum (highest Good), the ens perfectissimum (i.e. the most perfect being). Yes, humans do eventually equal their parents in intelligence when they grow up, but that's not true with God. The difference between finite human intelligence and divine infinite intelligence is a chasm that can never be gulfed. In fact, the more a human develops intellectually, the more he ought to realize how wide that gap is. God can see deeper, wider and more long term than you can. God sees the end from the beginning and the parts in relation to the whole (and vice versa). This is illustrated by a purported conversation Dr. Timothy Keller had with his son. The conversation went something like this:

Now I had a ten year old, my middle son, who was a very hard person...I would say to him, "Obey me! I'm your father. I told you to do this, just do it because I told you." And he would always say, "Dad, I would be happy to obey you if you could just make it reasonable...Tell me why this is helpful..." I would say, "If you only obey me when I explain it to you then you are not obeying me, you are just agreeing with me. I want you to obey me because I'm forty-five and you are ten. I know a little bit more about life than you do and I don't want to have to explain it to you because I couldn't get it into your ten year-old brain"
If this is true of human parents, how much more of the infinitely knowledgeable God? Also, if one developed properly in terms of rationality and morality, one should come to see how reasonable it is to obey God. Also, it's not as if God hasn't given us rational reasons for obeying Him in the Bible. He has along with other types of reasons. See John Piper's book Christian Hedonism and C.S. Lewis' sermon The Weight of Glory.

O. Okay, let's go through some of those attributes individually. You focused on God's knowledge. What does possessing all knowledge have anything to do with my obeying God? Just because God has a lot of facts and data doesn't make him worthy of obedience. There are a lot of knowledgeable people in the world who are evil. Think of people who commit IT computer crimes.

A. It's not just that God possesses all knowledge (omniscience), God also possesses all wisdom (omnisapience). God's knowledge is not limited to His 1. free knowledge (i.e. of the world as it is or will be), nor to His. 2. natural/necessary knowledge of all necessary truths and all possible contingent worlds. God's knowledge includes His informed wisdom. Wisdom can be defined as knowing the best ends, and knowing the best means to arrive at those ends. And so, God knows which instructions to give you by which you can know the best way to navigate your way in the world when it comes to temporal things (earthly) and spiritual things (heavenly).  As people jokingly say, "BIBLE" stands for "Basic Instructions Before Leaving Earth."

O. That might be true about God being able to help us in life, but don't you see that that appeal again boils down to prudential reasons? In essence, you're telling me to obey God because God's "wisdom" (we might as well add "power") can lead to my greatest benefit if not also in this world, then at the very least in the afterlife (i.e. ultimately, finally and lastingly).

A. But God is also all good. The source of all goodness. The standard, exemplar and paragon of goodness.

O. To say that God is the source of all goodness is not the same thing as saying God is good or even that God is the standard of Goodness.

First, to answer by saying God is the source of all goodness would seem, once again, to reduce to an appeal to prudential reasons. In other words, obey God and you'll receive good things since He's the source and "fount of every blessing" [as the hymn and Bible teaches (James 1:17; Ps. 36:9)].

Second, to say that God is all good, implies that there is some standard of goodness which God himself obeys. That would mean that there are absolutes outside of God. Something which you as a Christian theist deny.  But if true, then I don't need God in order to be moral. Which means, I don't need to obey God. God would be on the same plane with me morally. He would have to obey the laws of morality and goodness in the same way I do. Just as I'm not required to blindly obey or follow a human being, so I'm not required to blindly obey God.

Third, your only consistent option is the last statement you made where you claimed God is the standard of Goodness. But what are you really saying when you say that? It seems you're not really saying anything. It's a tautology. It's circular because all you're really saying is "God's nature is that which is God's nature" or " God is being God-like." 

A. Regarding the charge of a tautology, that objection is like asking the question, "What's north of the north pole?" Or, "Why is a bachelor and unmarried man?" The north pole is north by definition, just like bachelors are unmarried men by definition. The reason why we have a moral sense in the first place is because God implanted it within us by making us in His moral and rational image. To question God being the standard of goodness is to assume morality and goodness exist outside of God. It is to beg the question about the source of goodness and morality. Unless and until a better explanation is offered for the source of morality and goodness one cannot even begin to judge, evaluate or object to God's being the standard and source of goodness and morality. No one, including God, is asking you to obey Him blindly. Only trustingly based on your innate knowledge of God that is itself based on the sensus divinitatis/deitatis, His general revelation and (if you're fortunate enough to be exposed to it) His special revelation.

C. I would refer people to my blog that deals with these questions a bit more thoroughly here:

God in Relation to Law: Ex Lex, Sub Lego or Sibi Ipsi Lex  
 
A. I'll admit one thing. You got me into implying that any individual attribute of God separated from all the others can be used to argue for why one should obey Him. His attributes can be distinguished, but they shouldn't be separated. It's each of His attributes individually AND collectively that provides the rational (not to mention pragmatic, prudential etc.) reasons for obeying God. Beyond answering the question, "Why (rationally) should I obey God?," the related and more pointed question is, "How can God obligate us?"

You're asking for a RATIONAL answer, right? Well, One of many answers is because God is Himself the source of Rationality. God isn't merely the greatest participant of rationality among lesser participants. God is Ultimate Perfect Rationality. Along with being the source of being, blessing/benefits, love, and personality. God is the solution to the Greek philosophers' search for the transcendentals (e.g. the good, the true, and the beautiful etc.). All of God's perfections and excellencies individually and put together constitute the reason and reasons (rational, practical, pragmatic, prudential, existential) for obeying, loving, trusting and (to sum it all up) worshipping God. It is because God is the all glorious Supreme Being who is worthy of worship that we ought to worship Him. God possesses all perfections infinitely, without limitation and to their highest degree. "Infinity" here of course refers not to quantity, but quality. As William Lane Craig wrote:

But when theologians speak of the infinity of God, they are not using the word in a mathematical sense to refer to an aggregate of an infinite number of elements. God's infinity is, as it were, qualitative, not quantitative. It means that God is metaphysically necessary, morally perfect, omnipotent, omniscient, eternal, and so on.
Really "infinity" is just a sort of umbrella term used to cover all of God's superlative attributes.
You can't be rational without being dependent on God who is the source and paragon of rationality and morality. It's precisely because you are made in God's rational and moral image that you ought (rationally and morally) to obey God. To disobey God is the pinnacle of irrationality and immorality. You want to be logical, but God is the source of logic itself. As the Bible says, "In the beginning was the Word ["logos" in Greek], and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1). Logic is part of God's nature, and when you attempt to be logical you're tacitly admitting your dependence upon Him for your being AND rationality. So, it's eminently reasonable and rational to obey God.To do anything else is irrational.

O. Okay, let's say for the meantime I grant you that those are rational reasons for obeying God. But there's another level to this question. What rational reasons do I have to believe God possesses such attributes? For example, how can I believe that God is good and wise when I see so much evil in the world and seemingly bad design in the world? Bad design exemplified precisely because of the evil in the world. A world in which evil exists seems to be poorly designed. Poor design is a manifestation of folly rather than wisdom. What about God's apparent absence and indifference?

A. Now you're delving into the philosophical and theological issue of the problem of evil (PoE). We can eventually discuss that new objection, but that's a different topic. Before we move into that topic, let's probe deeper in our current discussion. We can also eventually discuss whether God actually is good (or not) and whether God is the standard of goodness. But hypothetically speaking, are you willing to admit that if God were the maximally great being (per the definition of God in the ontological argument) as well as the very standard of goodness itself (i.e. Himself), that it would be rational to obey such a Being?

One has to eventually ask, "How can ultimate goodness be impersonal?" How can goodness and morality be grounded in a materialistic worldview? Even given Atheistic Moral Platonism which posits immaterial forms or ideas, these ideas aren't personal. Positing Platonic forms may give one models for ideal behavior, but since they aren't personal they cannot truly obligate. There are real moral obligations and only persons can obligate us. If one agrees there are universal obligations, then one ought also to agree that we are obligated by a universal person, namely God. Causally effete abstract entities cannot obligate persons. Craig even questions whether atheistic moral Platonism is rationally coherent.

If God were really morally perfect and the very source of morality, then it naturally follows that to disobey God is, by definition, immoral. God, being the kind of Being God is, ought to be obeyed. That's an eminently rational reason to obey God. 

This is worthy of repetition. It is rational and reasonable to obey God because God is the very source of rationality. God is ABSOLUTE RATIONALITY in PERSON (and eternally so). God's Absolute Personality and Absolute Rationality are what makes God GOD. That is, what qualifies God to be God who is worthy to be worshipped, believed, loved, trusted and obeyed. It's no accident that Jesus Christ is described in the Bible as the "Word" or "logos" in Greek. "Logos" in Greek means "reason" (and all that that entails). Logos is also the etymological source of the English word logic. God's absolute personality is also why God must be multi-personal (as Christians believe God is as a Trinity). Trinitarianism solves the problem of the one and the many. BOTH unity and diversity are ultimate. Ultimate in the Triune God. To obey God is to follow the dictates of perfect Reason (Himself/Themselves). So, if you want to be rational, logical, and reasonable, then be like God by following His dictates.

What reason do I have to believe that even if God were absolutely rational that his dictates are moral? Even among human beings having superior intelligence and reasoning capacity doesn't guarantee moral behavior.

That's because human beings are finite in personality, knowledge, and rationality. At a minimum, morality and moral behavior among finite creatures like humans requires personal agency, knowledge, rationality and a standard of value. With God you have absolute personality, absolute knowledge (omniscience), absolute wisdom (omnisapience), absolute rationality, and an absolute value. Each infinite person of the Trinity esteeming Himself and the other two infinite persons of the Trinity as having infinite value. God is the "gold standard" (if you will, and in a manner of speaking) by which humans, made in God's image, can value other human beings as they too are minted with God's stamp of value. This is the meaning of Christ's request for a denarius and his statement, "Render to Caesar the things that are Caesar's, and to God the things that are God's" (cf. Mark 12:13-17//Matt. 22:15-22). Meaning, just as the denarius has the image of Caesar on it and it belongs to Caesar, so also in a higher sense humans have God's image inscribed on them, and we are to worship God in whom all the glories and values of man are only a reflection of God's own perfect and infinite glory and value. Thus, to obey God is to be as close to being like the Supreme Being as our finite nature allows.

"You shall be holy, for I am holy." - 1 Peter 1:16 ESV
"You therefore must be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect"- Matt. 5:48

"Be ye holy; for I am holy."- 1 Peter 1:16 KJV
"Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect."- Matt. 5:48

Here's another analogy that uses gold. If humans were analogous to paper currency (e.g. $100 dollar bills), then God is the gold that backs up the value of the paper money. Without the gold, the money is worthless. It's because God has eternally valued Himself that humans made in His image (and who reflect His value) have value and worth in themselves. Christianity can ground human dignity and worth and so can make sense of moral obligations between human beings. As I argued elsewhere, values flow from God's nature, while our moral duties as God's creatures flow from God's will as expressed in commands (i.e. Divine Command Essentialism).




Is Atheistic Moral Platonism More Plausible Than Theism?
(video link)


Ultimately, we obey God because obeying God is one of the aspects of worship. And we worship God because, to quote William Lane Craig....

"You believe in  [and worship] God because God, as the supreme Good, is the appropriate object of adoration and love. He is Goodness itself, to be desired for its own sake. And so the fulfillment of human existence is to be found in relation to God. It's because of who God is and his moral worth that he is worthy of worship. It has nothing to do with avoiding Hell, or promoting your own well-being." [source]

Finally, while prudential reasons are not the best motivations or the ultimate reasons why we ought to obey and worship God, prudential reasons are nevertheless legitimate penultimate or antepenultimate reasons.

Here are some links to prudential reasons for obeying God.

 In my blog on Sermons and Books on Heaven I have three resources that provide really good prudential reasons for obeying God.

The Weight of Glory by C.S. Lewis

Heaven by Edward D. Griffin

 Pascal's Wager [collection of articles from Christians, atheists and non-Christians in general]

I also recommend a blog of mine dealing with God's relation to law and morality. It deals with the question, "Where is goodness located?"


Here are links to William Lane Craig videos on The Problem of Evil


 Why Doesn't God Reveal the Reasons For Permitting Evil and Suffering?
(video link)



"The Problem of Evil and Suffering"
(video link)



Here are links to three of my blogs that have some relevance to the topic of this blog.

God in Relation to Law: Ex Lex, Sub Lego or Sibi Ipsi Lex

"Unveiling" The Hiddenness of God

Detecting and Finding God 

Answering Moral Objections to the Bible

Book Reviews of Recent Atheist Authors by Christian Apologists 

Resources for Dealing with Alleged Bible Contradictions, Discrepancies and Errors

Dealing with Christian Doubts

Christian Apologetics: Who Needs It? by William Lane Craig 

The Evil God Hypothesis: Some Observations and Answers

Distinctions in God's Will from a Calvinist Perspective

Why Obey God?

Evil God Challenge Revisited


short url: http://alturl.com/cho9p

Scientific Evidence Against Materialism


My knowledge of science is very limited, but according to many who do understand modern science, there is scientific evidence that seriously calls into question or even refutes materialism. I don't vouch for the complete accuracy of the scientific statements made in these videos. But I do assume their general accuracy regarding the data (even if not always stated as precisely as they could be).

The following videos document some of these evidences. By the way, I don't necessarily agree with all of the conclusions these videos make. Whether they are the scientific conclusions or (and especially) the theological conclusions. For example, some of the Christian authors assume the truth of divine idealism and Christian panentheism. Though, I am open to divine idealism and a Christian version of panentheism, I don't currently subscribe to them. At the very least these videos are thought provoking and seriously call into question materialism/naturalism.


 The Incompatibility of Physicalism with Physics: A Conversation with Dr. Bruce Gordon
(https://youtu.be/wk-UO81HmO4)

In this video Bruce Gordon argues for the incompatibility of physicalism with modern physics and in the end favors some sort of Quantum Idealism. During the Questions & Answers portion of the webinar (at 1:31:11) a question I submitted earlier was answered and Dr. Gordon ends up mentioning popularizer Johanan Raatz and says he has both agreements and disgreements with Raatz. He even mentions InspiringPhilosophy's Youtube channel's videos on the topic as well. I've linked to some of both InspiringPhilosophy's and Raatz's videos below. See also Gordon's article: "Divine Action and the World of Science:What Cosmology and Quantum Physics Teach Us about the Role of Providence in Nature" [or HERE].


[Why] Quantum Physics Debunks Materialism

Quantum Physics Debunks Materialism
(Open in another browser tab by clicking HERE)



Digital Physics Argument for God's Existence



  Delayed Choice Quantum Eraser Experiment Explained



The Death of Materialism
https://youtu.be/wM0IKLv7KrE




A Critique of the Many Worlds Interpretation


The Measurement Problem


The Emergent Universe
https://youtu.be/iFEBOGLjuq4



The Cosmic Conscious Argument for God's Existence
https://youtu.be/2r74vcMxwUk



The Introspective Argument
(video link)


Christianity and Panentheism



The Case for the Soul (Neuroscience)
(video link)


The Case for the Soul: Refuting Physicalist Objections
(video link)

The above videos are from the Christian YouTube channel InspiringPhilosophy. Another Christian channel advocating a Christian version of Quantum Idealism is Johanan Raatz's channel HERE.

Raatz's channel as a lot of videos on the topic. Here's a link to Raatz interviewing J.P. Moreland on the topic: https://youtu.be/ZQphceRQHbE?t=1m20s

Here's an example of Raatz's videos on Quantum Idealism

Digital Physics Meets Idealism: The Mental Universe
(https://youtu.be/QiZLlpqAQ7U)


A Dualist Equivalent to Physics-Based Idealist Apologetics by Johanan Raatz




The above videos are Christian. The following videos below are NON-Christian.


The Simulation Hypothesis
(https://youtu.be/VqULEE7eY8M)

[[update: If I'm not mistaken, Johanan Raatz recently said that the above video "The Simulation Hypothesis" was created by a friend of his (at his request or suggestion). So, it might be created by Christians without directly pointing to Christianity as the ultimate explanation.]]



For another NON-Christian video explaining some of the recent discoveries in science that undermine materialism, see the first 3 1/2 videos in the following link. I say the first 3 1/2 videos because after that it gets into Non-Christian occultic religious views. Even the first 3 1/2 videos have statements and conclusions that don't necessarily follow, even assuming the science is generally accurate.


↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑  ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑  ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
This is the link to the non-Christian religious videos I mentioned above



God Is Real…Why modern physics has discredited atheism.
http://godevidence.com/2012/02/god-is-real/
[I can't tell whether the above link is Christian or not.]



See Also My Blog:

Problems with the Multiverse

 

Evidence and Arguments Against Materialism and Naturalism